INDIAN POLITY CLASS TEST 1

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TOPICS: Introduction to the Indian Constitution, Historical Background, and Preamble.

UPSC Polity Quiz

UPSC Prelims Mock Test: Indian Polity

Q1. Consider the following statements regarding the Regulating Act of 1773:

1. It was the first step taken by the British Government to control and regulate the affairs of the East India Company in India.
2. It designated the Governor of Bengal as the ‘Governor-General of Bengal’.
3. It provided for the establishment of a Supreme Court at Calcutta (1774).
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 1. (c) All three statements are correct. The 1773 Act was the first intervention by the British Parliament, created the G-G of Bengal (Warren Hastings), and established the Supreme Court at Fort William.

Q2. With reference to Pitt’s India Act of 1784, consider the following statements:

1. It distinguished between the commercial and political functions of the Company.
2. It created a new body called ‘Board of Control’ to manage political affairs.
3. The Company’s territories in India were for the first time called the ‘British possessions in India’.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 2. (c) All three are correct. Pitt’s India Act created the Board of Control for political affairs, while the Court of Directors handled commercial affairs (Double Government).

Q3. Which of the following acts for the first time made the Governor-General of Bengal the Governor-General of India?

Explanation: 3. (b) The Charter Act of 1833 made the G-G of Bengal the G-G of India (Lord William Bentinck) and vested in him all civil and military powers.

Q4. Consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1813:

1. It abolished the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India completely.
2. It allowed Christian missionaries to come to India for the purpose of enlightening the people.
3. It provided for the spread of Western education among the inhabitants of the British territories in India.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 4. (b) Only statements 2 and 3 are correct. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Act of 1813 abolished the monopoly except for trade in tea and trade with China. Complete abolition happened in 1833.

Q5. Consider the following statements regarding the Charter Act of 1853:

1. It separated the legislative and executive functions of the Governor-General’s council for the first time.
2. It introduced an open competition system for the selection and recruitment of civil servants.
3. It provided for the addition of six new members called legislative councillors to the council.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 5. (c) All three are correct. This act established the “Mini-Parliament” (Legislative Council) and introduced open competition for civil services (Macaulay Committee).

Q6. The Government of India Act of 1858 changed the designation of the Governor-General of India to:

Explanation: 6. (b) The 1858 Act created the office of Viceroy (Lord Canning), who was the direct representative of the British Crown.

Q7. Consider the following pairs of Acts and their key features:

1. Indian Councils Act of 1861: Introduction of Portfolio system.
2. Indian Councils Act of 1892: Introduction of an element of election.
3. Indian Councils Act of 1909: Legalization of Communalism.
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: 7. (c) All three pairs are correct. 1861 introduced the Portfolio system; 1892 introduced limited/indirect use of election; 1909 (Minto-Morley) legalized communal electorates for Muslims.

Q8. Consider the following statements regarding the Government of India Act of 1919:

1. It relaxed the central control over the provinces by demarcating and separating the central and provincial subjects.
2. It introduced dyarchy in the provinces.
3. It provided for the establishment of a public service commission.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 8. (c) All three are correct. The 1919 Act (Montagu-Chelmsford) introduced Dyarchy (Reserved and Transferred subjects) and a Central Public Service Commission (set up in 1926).

Q9. Which of the following features was NOT part of the Government of India Act of 1935?

Explanation: 9. (d) Statement (d) is incorrect. The Secretary of State for India continued; however, the Council of India (advisory body) was abolished and replaced by a team of advisors. Other features like the Federation, Provincial Autonomy, and Dyarchy at the Centre were key parts of the 1935 Act.

Q10. With reference to the Indian Independence Act of 1947, consider the following statements:

1. It declared India as an independent and sovereign state from August 15, 1947.
2. It provided for the partition of India and creation of two independent dominions.
3. It abolished the office of Viceroy.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 10. (c) All three are correct. The Act ended British rule, created India and Pakistan, and replaced the Viceroy with a Governor-General for each dominion.

Q11. Who among the following was the first to put forward the idea of a Constituent Assembly for India in 1934?

Explanation: 11. (a) M.N. Roy, a pioneer of the communist movement in India, proposed the idea in 1934.

Q12. Consider the following statements regarding the composition of the Constituent Assembly:

1. The Assembly was constituted in November 1946 under the scheme formulated by the Cabinet Mission Plan.
2. Each province and princely state were to be allotted seats in proportion to their respective population.
3. Seats allocated to each British province were to be divided among Muslims, Sikhs, and General.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 12. (c) All three are correct. Seats were allocated based on population (roughly 1 per million), and divided into Muslim, Sikh, and General categories.

Q13. The representatives of princely states in the Constituent Assembly were:

Explanation: 13. (b) The Assembly was a partly elected and partly nominated body. Princely state representatives were nominated by their rulers.

Q14. Who was elected as the permanent President of the Constituent Assembly?

Explanation: 14. (b) Dr. Rajendra Prasad was elected permanent President. Dr. Sachchidananda Sinha was the temporary President.

Q15. Consider the following statements regarding the ‘Objectives Resolution’:

1. It was moved by Jawaharlal Nehru on December 13, 1946.
2. It laid down the fundamentals and philosophy of the constitutional structure.
3. It was unanimously adopted by the Assembly on January 22, 1947.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 15. (c) All three are correct. It defined the aims of the assembly and eventually became the Preamble.

Q16. Which of the following changes occurred in the Constituent Assembly after the Indian Independence Act of 1947?

1. The Assembly was made a fully sovereign body.
2. The Assembly became a legislative body in addition to being a constituent body.
3. The total strength of the Assembly increased.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 16. (b) Only statements 1 and 2 are correct. The total strength decreased from 389 to 299 because members from Pakistan withdrew.

Q17. When the Constituent Assembly met as the legislative body, it was chaired by:

Explanation: 17. (b) When meeting for constitution-making, Rajendra Prasad presided; when meeting as a legislature, G.V. Mavalankar presided.

Q18. Consider the following statements regarding the Drafting Committee:

1. It was set up on August 29, 1947.
2. It consisted of seven members.
3. Dr. B.R. Ambedkar was the Chairman of the committee.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 18. (c) All three are correct. The 7-member committee was led by Dr. Ambedkar to prepare the draft.

Q19. How much time did the Constituent Assembly take to finalise the Constitution?

Explanation: 19. (a) It took 2 years, 11 months, and 18 days across 11 sessions.

Q20. Which of the following functions were performed by the Constituent Assembly?

1. Ratified India’s membership of the Commonwealth in 1949.
2. Adopted the national flag on July 22, 1947.
3. Adopted the national anthem and national song on January 24, 1950.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 20. (c) All three are correct. These were the major non-constitutional functions performed by the Assembly.

Q21. The Preamble to the Indian Constitution is based on the:

Explanation: 21. (b) The Preamble is the modified version of the Objectives Resolution moved by Nehru.

Q22. Which of the following words were added to the Preamble by the 42nd Constitutional Amendment Act, 1976?

1. Socialist
2. Secular
3. Integrity
4. Republic
How many of the above are correct?

Explanation: 22. (c) Only three: Socialist, Secular, and Integrity. “Republic” was already there.

Q23. The term ‘Justice’ in the Preamble embraces which of the following forms?

1. Social
2. Economic
3. Political
4. Religious
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: 23. (a) Social, Economic, and Political justice (taken from the Russian Revolution). Religious justice is not explicitly mentioned as a form of “Justice” in the Preamble.

Q24. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that the Preamble is a part of the Constitution?

Explanation: 24. (b) In Kesavananda Bharati (1973), the SC overturned its Berubari opinion and held that the Preamble is an integral part of the Constitution.

Q25. Consider the following statements regarding the nature of the Preamble:

1. It is a source of power to the legislature.
2. It is a prohibition upon the powers of the legislature.
3. It is non-justiciable.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 25. (a) Only statement 3 is correct. The Preamble is not a source of power nor a limitation, and it is non-justiciable (cannot be enforced in court).

Q26. The ideal of ‘Liberty, Equality, and Fraternity’ in our Preamble have been taken from:

Explanation: 26. (b) These ideals were the slogans of the French Revolution (1789).

Q27. The term ‘Sovereign’ in the Preamble implies:

1. India is neither a dependency nor a dominion of any other nation.
2. There is no authority above India and it is free to conduct its own affairs.
3. India can acquire a foreign territory or cede a part of its territory in favour of a foreign state.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 27. (c) All three are correct. Sovereignty implies absolute independence and power over territory.

Q28. What is the correct chronological order of the following keywords as they appear in the Preamble?

Explanation: 28. (a) The sequence is: Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic, Republic.

Q29. The concept of ‘Socialism’ in the Indian Constitution is:

Explanation: 29. (b) India follows “Democratic Socialism” (Mixed Economy), which aims to end poverty and inequality through democratic means, unlike the “Communistic Socialism” involving nationalization of all means of production.

Q30. The date of adoption of the Constitution mentioned in the Preamble is:

Explanation: 30. (c) November 26, 1949, as clearly stated in the text of the Preamble.

Q31. Consider the following statements regarding the Indian Independence Act, 1947:

1. It deprived the British Monarch of his right to veto laws or ask for reservation of certain laws for his approval.
2. It discontinued the appointment to civil services and reservation of posts by the Secretary of State for India.
3. The Governor-General of India and the provincial governors were made constitutional (nominal) heads of the states.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 31. (c) All three are correct. The Act made the British Crown a nominal head until the transition was complete.

Q32. Who was the constitutional advisor to the Constituent Assembly?

Explanation: 32. (c) Sir B.N. Rau was the Constitutional Advisor.

Q33. Which of the following were the reasons for the elephant being adopted as the symbol (seal) of the Constituent Assembly?

Explanation: 33. (a) The elephant was chosen to symbolize the massive scale and diversity of the nation the Constitution would govern.

Q34. Consider the following pairs of Committees and their Chairmen:

1. Union Powers Committee: Jawaharlal Nehru
2. Provincial Constitution Committee: Sardar Patel
3. Rules of Procedure Committee: Dr. Rajendra Prasad
4. Steering Committee: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
How many of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

Explanation: 34. (c) Only pair 4 is incorrect. The Steering Committee was chaired by Dr. Rajendra Prasad, not Dr. Ambedkar (who chaired the Drafting Committee).

Q35. The idea of ‘Equality of opportunity’ is mentioned in:

Explanation: 35. (c) It is mentioned in the Preamble (“Equality of status and of opportunity”) and Article 16 of Fundamental Rights.

Q36. Consider the following statements regarding the Berubari Union Case (1960):

1. The Supreme Court said that the Preamble shows the general purposes behind the several provisions in the Constitution.
2. It concluded that the Preamble is not a part of the Constitution.
3. It stated that the Preamble is a key to the minds of the makers of the Constitution.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 36. (c) All three are correct. In 1960, the court acknowledged its importance but technically excluded it from being a “part” of the document.

Q37. Which feature of Indian Democracy is indicated by the term ‘Republic’ in the Preamble?

1. Vesting of political sovereignty in the people and not in a single individual like a king.
2. The absence of any privileged class.
3. All public offices being open to every citizen without any discrimination.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 37. (c) All three are correct. A republic means an elected head, no hereditary rule, and no privileged classes.

Q38. The Preamble has been amended how many times so far?

Explanation: 38. (a) Only once, by the 42nd Amendment Act in 1976.

Q39. Which of the following provisions of the Constitution came into force on November 26, 1949 itself?

1. Citizenship
2. Elections
3. Provisional Parliament
4. Fundamental Rights
Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Explanation: 39. (a) Only 1, 2, and 3 are correct. Fundamental Rights (along with the bulk of the constitution) came into force on Jan 26, 1950.

Q40. Consider the following statements regarding the communal electorate in India:

1. It was first introduced by the Morley-Minto Reforms of 1909.
2. The Government of India Act 1919 extended the principle of communal representation to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans.
3. The Government of India Act 1935 further extended it to depressed classes, women, and labor.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 40. (c) All three are correct. The scope of communal electorates expanded with each subsequent major Act.

Q41. Who called the Preamble the ‘Horoscope of our sovereign democratic republic’?

Explanation: 41. (a) K.M. Munshi, a member of the Drafting Committee, used this phrase.

Q42. Consider the following statements about the ‘Secular’ nature of the Indian Constitution:

1. The term was added to the Preamble in 1976.
2. It means the state has no religion of its own.
3. It implies that the state protects all religions equally.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 42. (c) All three are correct. India follows a “positive” concept of secularism.

Q43. Which of the following described the Preamble as the ‘Identity card of the Constitution’?

Explanation: 43. (a) N.A. Palkhivala, an eminent jurist, called it the identity card.

Q44. The system of ‘Double Government’ (Board of Control and Court of Directors) was abolished by:

Explanation: 44. (a) The “Act for the Better Government of India” (1858) ended the Double Government system of the EIC.

Q45. Consider the following statements about the ‘Fraternity’ in the Preamble:

1. It promotes a feeling of brotherhood among all Indians.
2. It was added by the 42nd Amendment Act.
3. It ensures both the dignity of the individual and the unity and integrity of the nation.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 45. (b) Only 1 and 3 are correct. The word ‘Fraternity’ was there originally; only ‘Integrity’ was added by the 42nd Amendment.

Q46. The Constituent Assembly held its first meeting on:

Explanation: 46. (a) Dec 9, 1946. It was boycotted by the Muslim League.

Q47. With reference to the ‘Cabinet Mission Plan’, consider the following:

1. It rejected the idea of two Constituent Assemblies.
2. It proposed a federation of provinces and states.
3. It suggested that the Constituent Assembly be formed by direct elections.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 47. (b) Only 1 and 2 are correct. Statement 3 is incorrect because the Constituent Assembly was formed via indirect elections by the provincial assemblies.

Q48. Which of the following is correct regarding the ‘Enactment’ of the Constitution?

Explanation: 48. (c) The Preamble was voted on and enacted after the entire Constitution was already passed to ensure it was in conformity with the document.

Q49. The ‘Objectives Resolution’ ultimately took the form of:

Explanation: 49. (c) The Objectives Resolution is the precursor to the Preamble.

Q50. Consider the following statements:

1. The Indian Constitution is the lengthiest written constitution in the world.
2. The Preamble is the source of the basic structure of the Constitution.
3. The Preamble can be amended under Article 368.
How many of the statements given above are correct?

Explanation: 50. (b) Statements 1 and 3 are correct. Statement 2 is incorrect; while the Preamble contains elements of the Basic Structure, the “Basic Structure” doctrine itself is a judicial innovation from the Kesavananda Bharati case, not solely sourced from the Preamble.
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