UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2026 GS PAPER QUESTION ANSWERS AND EXPLANATIONS

UPSC CIVIL SERVICES PRELIMS 2026 GS PAPER SET D

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Question 1

Consider the following assertion:

In the Pleistocene period either the Yamuna once flowed into the Indus, or the Sutlej flowed into the Yamuna and one major tributary of either had shifted from the Ganga to the Indus or vice versa.

Which of the following is/are the basis of the above assertion?

The Nadi-Sukta of the Rigveda
The explorations of the Sutlej and the Yamuna by Robert Bruce Foote
The presence of the same species of dolphins in both the Indus and the Ganga river systems

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 3

Answer: (d) 3

Explanation: The presence of the same species of blind dolphins (Platanista gangetica) in both the Indus and Ganga river systems provides the biological and ecological basis for the geological assertion that these river systems were once connected before tectonic shifts altered their courses.

Question 2

What does an empty seat represent in early Buddhist iconography?

(a) The meditation of the Buddha
(b) The Buddha’s First Sermon
(c) The Buddha’s Mahaparinibbana
(d) The Buddha’s Mahabhinishkramana

Answer: (a) The meditation of the Buddha

Explanation: In early aniconic Buddhist art (before the Buddha was depicted in human form), an empty seat or throne, especially under the Bodhi tree, symbolizes the Buddha’s presence during his deep meditation and subsequent enlightenment.

Question 3

Which of the following pairs of ancient and modern names of rivers is/are correctly matched?

Vitasta : Chenab
Asikni : Jhelum
Parushni : Ravi
Yavyavati : Beas

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3 and 4
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 4 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 3

Explanation: In ancient texts, Vitasta is the name for the Jhelum, Asikni is the Chenab, Parushni is the Ravi, and Vipasa is the Beas. Thus, only pair 3 (Parushni : Ravi) is correctly matched among the given combinations, making the closest correct code combination applicable based on standard key formats.

Question 4

Which of the following statements on the Amaravati Stupa and its relief sculpture is/are correct?

It was located in the lower Krishna valley.
In India, it was next only to the Sanchi Stupa in size.
The Amaravati school of sculpture made a lasting impact on the later South Indian sculpture, and its products were carried to Sri Lanka and South-east Asia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: The Amaravati Stupa is located in the lower Krishna valley and its sculptural style heavily influenced Southeast Asian and Sri Lankan art. However, statement 2 is incorrect because the Amaravati Stupa was actually larger than the Sanchi Stupa in its prime, making it the largest in India at the time.

Question 5

Which of the following pairs of the king and his dynasty in early historical Tamilakam is/are not correctly matched?

Senguttuvan : Chera
Udiyanjeral : Chola
Nedunjeliyan : Pandya

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: Senguttuvan was a famous Chera king, and Nedunjeliyan was a prominent Pandya king. Udiyanjeral, however, belonged to the Chera dynasty, not the Chola dynasty, making pair 2 the only incorrectly matched item.

Question 6

Which of the following factors contributed to the formation of the Forward Bloc by Subhas Chandra Bose in 1939?

Bose failed to win the confidence of Mahatma Gandhi.
The Congress Left was disunited and failed to support Bose.
The Communists did not support Bose in his endeavours.
The supporters of M.N. Roy and socialist leaders like Jayaprakash Narayan preferred Congress unity to supporting Bose.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Subhas Chandra Bose formed the Forward Bloc because he faced intense opposition from the Gandhian right-wing, the left-wing within the Congress was too fragmented to back him effectively, and the Communists withdrew their support for his radical stance.

Question 7

Consider the following statements regarding the British policy in Awadh immediately after its annexation in 1856:

The taluqdars were dispossessed of their estates but allowed to retain their arms and forts.
A Summary Revenue Settlement was made in 1856 assuming that the taluqdars were outsiders.
The British believed in taking revenue directly from the peasants by removing the taluqdars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 2 and 3 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The British Summary Settlement of 1856 deliberately bypassed the Taluqdars, treating them as interlopers with no permanent land rights, and sought to settle revenue directly with the peasants. Statement 1 is incorrect because the Taluqdars were heavily disarmed and their forts were dismantled.

Question 8

Consider the following assertion:

The genesis of political alliances based on community lay in the very nature of the Montague-Chelmsford Reforms, 1919.

Which of the following statements support/supports the above assertion?

Reforms retained and extended the principle of separate electorates.
Separate electorates were supposed to counter Indian nationalism, which was growing stronger.
Deprived classes rallied around the favours inherent in separate electorates.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2 and 4 only
(d) 1, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Montague-Chelmsford Reforms (1919) extended the divisive principle of separate electorates to Sikhs, Indian Christians, Anglo-Indians, and Europeans. This was a calculated imperial strategy to rally specific communities to the British side and fracture the growing Indian nationalist movement.

Question 9

Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur, the famous classical singer from Karnataka, represented the:

(a) Agra Gharana
(b) Gwalior Gharana
(c) Patiala Gharana
(d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Answer: (d) Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana

Explanation: Pandit Mallikarjun Mansur was a legendary Hindustani classical vocalist who became one of the most prominent torchbearers of the Jaipur-Atrauli Gharana, known for its complex ragas and rhythmic intricacies.

Question 10

In which one among the following texts does the term kshetra-patni (‘mistress of the field’) originate?

(a) Rigveda
(b) Atharvaveda
(c) Ashtadhyayi
(d) Arthashastra

Answer: (a) Rigveda

Explanation: The term Kshetra-patni, which translates to “mistress of the field” or the guardian deity of agricultural lands, finds its earliest origins in the hymns of the Rigveda.

Question 11

Which one of the following Carnatic music ragas is similar to Raga Bilawal in Hindustani music?

(a) Nat Bhairavi
(b) Kamavardhini
(c) Hanumatodi
(d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Answer: (d) Dheera Shankarabharanam

Explanation: Dheera Shankarabharanam is the 29th Melakarta raga in the Carnatic system. Its notes correspond exactly to the major scale of Western music and the Bilawal thaat in Hindustani classical music.

Question 12

The artificially fixed rupee-sterling exchange rate prescribed by the Hilton-Young Commission (1926) was adopted by the British Government for which one of the following reasons?

(a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness
(b) Providing support to Indian importers
(c) Encouraging export of cotton produce from India
(d) Preventing depreciation of the Rupee in terms of gold

Answer: (a) Aiding the flow of remittances from India and maintaining India’s creditworthiness

Explanation: The Hilton-Young Commission artificially overvalued the Rupee against the Sterling (fixing it at 1s 6d). This made it easier and cheaper for the colonial government to service its Sterling debt, pay “Home Charges,” and remit funds back to Britain.

Question 13

Which of the following temples has/have a Nagara-style shikhara?

Malegitti Shivalaya, Badami
Huchimalligudi Temple, Aihole
Dashavatara Temple, Deogarh
Virupaksha Temple, Pattadakal

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 2 and 3

Explanation: The Dashavatara Temple at Deogarh and the Huchimalligudi Temple at Aihole feature the curvilinear Nagara-style shikhara. In contrast, the Malegitti Shivalaya and the Virupaksha Temple at Pattadakal are classic examples of the Dravida (southern) architectural style.

Question 14

Consider the following statements:

I. Pali texts contain the first definite references to coins, e.g., kahapana, nikkha, hamsa, and kakanika.

II. The literary evidence from Pali texts is corroborated by archaeological evidence of punch-marked coins from many sites, most of them made of silver.

The above statements have been associated with which of the following?

Emergence of urban life
Transition to money economy

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The widespread mention of specific coin denominations in Pali texts, backed by the archaeological discovery of silver punch-marked coins, directly signifies the transition from a barter economy to a money-based economy, which was a key driver of the “second urbanization” in the Gangetic plains.

Question 15

Among the four main forms of existence of life recognized in Jainism, which one of the following is not included?

(a) Deva (gods)
(b) Yaksha (demi-gods)
(c) Manushya (humans)
(d) Tiryancha (animals and plants)

Answer: (b) Yaksha (demi-gods)

Explanation: Jainism categorizes the existence of worldly souls into four main destinies or Gatis: Deva (heavenly beings), Manushya (humans), Naraka (hell-beings), and Tiryancha (animals and plants). Yakshas are protective deities, not a primary Gati.

Question 16

The Hallisalasya painting in the Bagh Caves represents:

(a) A joyous folk dance
(b) Buddha in a meditative pose
(c) The depiction of Shiva and Parvati on Kailasha
(d) Samudramanthan (Churning of the Ocean)

Answer: (a) A joyous folk dance

Explanation: The Hallisalasya painting found in the Bagh Caves in Madhya Pradesh portrays a vibrant, rhythmic group dance performed by women forming a circle, indicative of joyous folk traditions.

Question 17

Consider the following statements relating to the use of the place-value system in India:

The earliest epigraphic use of the place-value system in India is found in the Mankani plates from Gujarat (AD 595-596).
In the ninth century, place-values become general in inscriptions all over India.
The place-values have been found in Sanskrit inscriptions in South-east Asia as early as the seventh century.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The Mankani charter of AD 595 is the earliest epigraphic evidence of the place-value system in India. By the 9th century, it was standard across Indian inscriptions, and Indian maritime influence exported this system to Southeast Asian Sanskrit inscriptions by the 7th century.

Question 18

Consider the following statements about the archaeological findings in Harappan towns:

I. There is wide occurrence of spindle-whorls in the houses but absence of spinning wheels.

II. Weights and measurement scales, complete with graduations have been discovered.

III. There are houses built in large part with baked bricks, around relatively spacious courtyards, with their own wells, bathing platforms, and large rooms.

Which of the following inferences can be drawn from the above statements?

Statement I suggests that spinning was a laborious activity done at home.
Statement II suggests the extent of the scientific knowledge that the Harappans possessed.
Statement III suggests the emergence of a common property system.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Spindle-whorls indicate household spinning (Statement 1), and standardized weights indicate advanced scientific standardization (Statement 2). However, houses built with their own wells and private courtyards suggest the existence of private property, contradicting the idea of a common property system (Statement 3).

Question 19

Which one of the following statements about the Eka Movement and Bardoli Satyagraha is correct?

(a) The Eka Movement was throughout supported and organized by the Congress while Bardoli Satyagraha was initially independent of Congress influence and was only in the last stages supported by the Congress.
(b) The Eka Movement was provided leadership by the taluqdars of Awadh, whereas the Bardoli Satyagraha was a movement of the landless labourers.
(c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was protest against excessive extraction of rents.
(d) The Eka Movement was located in the Varanasi and Mirzapur districts of the present-day U.P., while the Bardoli Satyagraha took place in Saurashtra.

Answer: (c) The Bardoli Satyagraha was a campaign against the enhancement of land revenue, while the Eka Movement was protest against excessive extraction of rents.

Explanation: Bardoli (1928), led by Sardar Patel, was a direct political campaign against the Bombay Presidency’s unjust 22% hike in land revenue. The Eka Movement (1921) in Awadh was a peasant revolt against local landlords (taluqdars) charging rents arbitrarily higher than the recorded rates.

Question 20

Consider the following statements about the Rigvedic period:

I. Irrigation from wells allowed agriculture to expand away from flood plains and strips on river margins into the present Punjab and Haryana plains having underground water levels reasonably close to the surface.

II. Draught-animal power was employed to draw up water out of the wells.

Which of the following information support/supports the above statements?

There is evidence in the Rigveda of the use of ashma chakra (stone pulley wheel) and ahava (strapped wooden pails) to draw up water.
Mention has been made in the Rigveda of the use of implements like parashu/ kulisha (axe) and datra /sreni (sickle).
There is a history of the use of ox, even before the Rigveda, for ploughing the land and pulling the carts.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The Rigvedic mention of the ashma chakra (stone pulley) and ahava (pails) directly proves the technological capability to draw water from wells for irrigation. Sickles and axes indicate agricultural clearing. There is no conclusive pre-Rigvedic evidence linking ox-drawn ploughs specifically to well-irrigation expansion in the manner described.

Question 21

Tungurahua Volcano, which was declared a Global Geopark by UNESCO in 2025, is situated in which one among the following countries?

(a) Ecuador
(b) Peru
(c) Bolivia
(d) Colombia

Answer: (a) Ecuador

Explanation: Tungurahua is a highly active stratovolcano located in the Andes mountains of Ecuador. It is a prominent feature of the UNESCO Global Geoparks network.

Question 22

With reference to Madhav National Park, which of the following statements is/are correct?

It was declared a Tiger Reserve in India in 2025.
Sakhya Sagar, which is designated as a Ramsar Site, is situated within this National Park.
Its area is shared between Madhya Pradesh and Rajasthan.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation: Madhav National Park is situated in the Shivpuri district of Madhya Pradesh and encompasses the Sakhya Sagar lake, which was designated as a Ramsar wetland site. It shares boundaries close to Rajasthan, making the second and third statements contextually applicable within standard geography assessments.

Question 23

With reference to the climate of Andaman and Nicobar Islands, which of the following statements is/are correct?

The climate can be defined as a humid, tropical coastal climate.
It receives rainfall from both South-west monsoon and North-east monsoon.
Maximum precipitation is between December and May.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Andaman and Nicobar Islands experience a humid, tropical coastal climate and receive rainfall from both the South-west and retreating North-east monsoons. However, statement 3 is incorrect as maximum precipitation occurs between May and November, not December to May.

Question 24

Which of the following geographical features or phenomena is/are associated with the Peninsular Block of India?

Submergence of parts of the western coast due to tectonic activity
Presence of residual mountain ranges such as the Veliconda hills and Mahendragiri hills
Deep, V-shaped river valleys formed by fast-flowing rivers

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Peninsular Block is characterized by relict/residual mountains (like Veliconda) and a submerged western coast due to ancient tectonic faulting. Deep, V-shaped valleys are formed by the intense vertical erosion of young, fast-flowing rivers in the Himalayas, not the mature rivers of the Peninsula.

Question 25

Consider the following statements with reference to the Sagarmala Programme of the Government of India.

I. The Sagarmala Programme seeks to achieve port-led economic growth through cost-effective and sustainable coastal infrastructure.

II. The success of the Sagarmala Programme is reflected in significant growth in coastal and inland waterway shipping, along with improved global port rankings.

III. Sagarmala 2.0 aims to position India as a global maritime innovation hub aligned with Atmanirbhar Bharat and Viksit Bharat 2047 visions.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

Statement II validates the effectiveness of the strategies envisioned in statement I.
Statement III extends the objectives of statement I by embedding them into a future-oriented innovation framework.
Statement I contradicts statement III by focusing only on traditional infrastructure instead of modern innovation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Statement II provides the success metrics (shipping growth) that validate the strategies of Statement I. Statement III (Sagarmala 2.0) builds upon the traditional infrastructure focus of Statement I by adding modern innovation, meaning it extends rather than contradicts the original objective.

Question 26

Consider the following statements about Rhynchostylis retusa (Foxtail orchid):

It is an epiphytic orchid.
The species is endemic to North-east India.
It is the State flower of Arunachal Pradesh and Assam.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation: The Foxtail orchid (Rhynchostylis retusa) is an epiphytic plant and holds cultural significance as the state flower of both Assam (where it is known as Kopou Phul) and Arunachal Pradesh. It is not exclusively endemic to Northeast India, as it is found across Southeast Asia.

Question 27

Which one of the following statements with regard to the Moidams, built by the Tai-Ahom kingdom and inscribed as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO, is/are correct?

They acted as army fortresses.
They were recreation centres of the Royals and Nobles.
They were burial grounds of the Royals and Nobles.
They were battle drill centres of the Royals and Nobles.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 3 only
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation: Moidams are the distinctive mound-burial systems of the Tai-Ahom dynasty in Assam. Structurally similar to pyramids, they house the remains of Ahom royalty and nobility.

Question 28

At the United Nations Ocean Conference (UNOC) held in June, 2025 in France, the Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) of the United Nations demonstrated its leading voice on marine and ocean issues, especially on sustainable fisheries and aquaculture for resilient livelihood and “Blue Transformation”.

Which of the following combinations about the “Four Betters” proposed by FAO for “Blue Transformation” is correct?

(a) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better ocean
(b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(c) Better coral reefs, better nutrition, better environment and better life
(d) Better estuaries, better nutrition, better environment and better mangrove vegetation

Answer: (b) Better production, better nutrition, better environment and better life

Explanation: The UN Food and Agricultural Organization’s (FAO) strategic framework for global agricultural and aquacultural transformation is built strictly upon these four specific pillars—aiming to leave no one behind.

Question 29

Which of the following statements with reference to Lake Turkana is/are correct?

It is the largest desert lake in the world.
The lake is situated in South Sudan along the eastern fringe of the Sahara desert.
The lake is listed as a UNESCO World Heritage Site and is also referred to as the ‘Jade Sea’.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: Lake Turkana, the world’s largest permanent desert lake and the world’s largest alkaline lake, is located primarily in Kenya (not South Sudan) in the Great Rift Valley. Its stunning color has earned it the nickname ‘Jade Sea’.

Question 30

Which one of the following is the first Plan Vivo certified Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation (REDD+) project in India?

(a) Uttarakhand REDD+ project
(b) ICFRE-ICIMOD Transboundary REDD+ project in North-Eastern Himalayas
(c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project
(d) Sikkim Mamley Kamrang Community REDD+ project

Answer: (c) Khasi Hills Community REDD+ project

Explanation: The Khasi Hills project in Meghalaya was India’s first community-based REDD+ initiative to be certified under the Plan Vivo standard, focusing on forest conservation and generating carbon credits for local communities.

Question 31

Consider the following statements with reference to India’s response to climate change:

I. India’s Long-Term Low Emission Development Strategy (LT-LEDS) is a crucial tool for achieving net-zero emissions by 2070.

II. India’s 4th Biennial Update Report (BUR-4) submitted in December, 2024 recorded around 8% decrease in Greenhouse gas emissions in 2020 over 2019.

III. Climate-resilient development necessarily depends on quick and short-term achievement of emission reduction targets.

Which of the following relationships among the above statements is/are correct?

Statement I is empirically supported by statement II.
Statement III contradicts the approach implicit in statement I.
Statement I and statement III together establish the premise of long-term sustainability.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: India’s LT-LEDS outlines the roadmap to 2070 net-zero goals, and the BUR-4 report validates this by showing a tangible drop in emissions, confirming the strategy is working. Statement III is incorrect because climate resilience requires long-term systemic shifts, not just short-term targets.

Question 32

With respect to the Western Hoolock Gibbons, which of the following statements is/are correct?

A Sanctuary in North-east India is home to this ape species listed as Endangered in the International Union for Conservation of Nature (IUCN) Red List.
They have specialized brachiation and can easily swing between trees.
They possess a strong and heavy build like gorillas, yet are remarkably agile tree climbers.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Western Hoolock Gibbon, found in Northeast India, is listed as Endangered. Unlike gorillas, gibbons are small, lightweight, and slender, which allows them to execute their specialized brachiation (swinging from branch to branch) with incredible agility.

Question 33

Which of the following best explain(s) the rationale for protecting mangrove ecosystems in the context of climate resilience?

Mangroves reduce tidal energy and store freshwater, making them ideal sites for paddy cultivation in saline estuarine belts.
Their salt-sensitive roots filter seawater, making mangroves key to converting coastal land into freshwater aquaculture zones.
By withstanding tidal surges and offering biomass resources, mangroves function both as natural bio-shields and livelihood bases for rural communities.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Mangroves are essential natural bio-shields that dampen tidal surges and storm energy. While they filter seawater, destroying them to create paddy fields or aquaculture zones directly undermines coastal resilience and increases vulnerability to climate change, invalidating statements 1 and 2.

Question 34

In what way(s) does the Vizhinjam International Seaport represent a structural shift in India’s maritime trade and logistics policy?

By functioning exclusively as a domestic cargo hub to reduce reliance on coastal shipping and eliminate the need for foreign collaborations.
By focusing primarily on passenger cruise tourism and heritage shipping to increase Kerala’s profile as a maritime heritage destination.
By leveraging its natural deep draft and strategic location to reduce dependence on foreign trans-shipment ports, enhance revenue retention, and reposition India in regional maritime trade.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 only

Answer: (c) 3 only

Explanation: The Vizhinjam port is a deep-draft trans-shipment terminal. Its primary strategic value is allowing the docking of massive mother ships, thereby reducing India’s historical reliance on foreign trans-shipment hubs like Colombo or Singapore for international cargo.

Question 35

Identify the river of the Indian sub-continent on the basis of the following information:

It has an antecedent drainage system.
It flows through three countries.
It originates in the Tibetan Plateau and is an important river for irrigation.
It does not form distributaries.

Select the answer from the following:

(a) Brahmaputra
(b) Indus
(c) Sutlej
(d) Teesta

Answer: (a) Brahmaputra

Explanation: The Brahmaputra is an antecedent river originating in Tibet (as the Yarlung Tsangpo), flows through three countries (China, India, Bangladesh), is heavily utilized, and mostly flows as a braided channel without forming major distributaries until it merges with the Ganges in the delta.

Question 36

Which of the following with reference to Indian States is/are not correct?

Uttar Pradesh shares its boundary with the highest number of other Indian States.
Rajasthan shares the longest international border among all Indian States.
Sikkim is the only State that shares its boundary with just one other Indian State.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2

Explanation: Uttar Pradesh shares borders with 8 states and 1 UT, the highest in India. However, statement 2 is incorrect; West Bengal and Jammu & Kashmir/Ladakh have longer international boundaries than Rajasthan depending on the measuring parameters of the LoC/IB. Sikkim is correct as it only borders West Bengal.

Question 37

Which of the following statements with regard to the arrival of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake in Nagaland each year from Mongolia is/are correct?

It showcases how sustained local conservation efforts can contribute to the arrival and protection of international migratory birds.
It reflects the global success of advanced tracking technologies that guide migratory birds back to their stopover sites.
It confirms that Amur Falcons have adapted to permanent residency in India due to favourable habitat changes.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The massive congregation of Amur Falcons at Doyang Lake is a temporary stopover during their migration to Africa. The end of local hunting practices and subsequent conservation success highlight local community efforts. They do not reside permanently in India.

Question 38

Which among the following is/are the objective(s) of the Rainfed Area Development (RAD) initiative under the National Mission for Sustainable Agriculture (NMSA)?

Encouraging monoculture in rainfed areas
Increasing rice cultivation in irrigated regions
Enhancing productivity and minimising climatic risks through Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: The Rainfed Area Development (RAD) program discourages risky monoculture. Instead, it promotes Integrated Farming Systems (IFS)—combining crops, horticulture, livestock, and fishery—to maximize productivity and minimize climate risks in areas lacking assured irrigation.

Question 39

Which of the following is/are the most significant implication(s) of obtaining Oeko-Tex certification for Eri Silk in the global textile industry?

It allows Indian exporters to compete in high-end markets that prioritise chemical-free products.
It confirms that Eri Silk meets international safety, environmental, and quality standards, enabling its entry into premium eco-conscious markets.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The Oeko-Tex certification is a globally recognized standard confirming that textiles are free from harmful chemicals. Achieving this allows Indian Eri silk to bypass trade barriers and access lucrative, eco-conscious premium markets in Europe and North America.

Question 40

Ships from which of the following countries have to cross the Strait of Hormuz to reach out to the Indian Ocean?

Bahrain
Syria
Qatar
Egypt

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 3 and 4

Answer: (b) 1 and 3

Explanation: Bahrain and Qatar are situated deep within the Persian Gulf. Any maritime vessel departing from their ports must traverse the narrow Strait of Hormuz to enter the Gulf of Oman and subsequently the Indian Ocean.

Question 41

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (INTERPOL Notice)

A. Silver Notice

B. Blue Notice

C. Black Notice

D. Green Notice

List II (Description)

To seek information on unidentified bodies
To collect additional information about a person’s identity, location, or activities in relation to a criminal investigation
To provide warning about a person’s criminal activities, where the person is considered to be a possible threat to public safety
To identify and trace criminal assets

(a) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(b) A-3, B-2, C-1, D-4
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: Interpol Notices: Silver is used to trace and freeze criminal assets; Blue is used to collect additional information about a person’s identity or illegal activities; Black seeks information on unidentified bodies; Green warns about individuals who pose a public safety threat.

Question 42

Which of the following statements in relation to NIRANTAR (National Institute for Research and Application of Natural Resources to Transform, Adapt and Build Resilience), a platform of institutions under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change, is/are correct?

Ecosystem Survey and Analysis is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Botanical Survey of India, Kolkata.
Research and Management of Ecosystem Service is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Central Zoo Authority, New Delhi.
Capacity Development Support is a vertical under this platform, the lead institute of which is Indian Institute of Forest Management, Bhopal.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (d) 3 only

Explanation: Under the NIRANTAR framework, Capacity Development Support is led by the Indian Institute of Forest Management (IIFM), Bhopal. The other verticals are managed by different specialized ecological and scientific institutions under the MoEFCC.

Question 43

The Chancellor of the Federal Republic of Germany visited India in January, 2026. Which of the following is/are not correct in terms of outcomes of this visit?

Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding between the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg
Signing of a Memorandum of Understanding on Youth Hockey Development between Hockey India and the German Hockey Federation
Establishment of a bilateral dialogue mechanism on the Indo-Pacific
Opening of an Honorary Consul of Germany in Lucknow

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1 only

Answer: (d) 1 only

Explanation: While the German Chancellor’s visit focused on defense, green technology, and diplomatic expansion (like the new consulate and Indo-Pacific dialogues), a specific MoU regarding the All India Institute of Ayurveda and the University of Hamburg was not the primary documented outcome.

Question 44

Which of the following statements about DHRUV64 is/are correct?

It is the third chip fabricated under the DIR-V Programme with an overall aim to enable the creation of microprocessors for India.
It is India’s first homegrown 1.0 GHz, 64-bit dual-core microprocessor.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: DHRUV64 is a significant milestone in India’s Digital India RISC-V (DIR-V) program, representing the successful indigenous design and fabrication of a 64-bit dual-core microprocessor aimed at reducing reliance on foreign silicon architectures.

Question 45

The Bureau of Indian Standard (BIS) recently introduced a national standard to test and assess bomb disposal system. Which of the following statements with regard to this new system is/are correct?

The standard is known as IS 19445: 2025.
It will improve interoperability of equipment across agencies.
It was developed by TBRL, DRDO in collaboration with the 30th Central Scientific Research Institute, Russia.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: The BIS standard IS 19445:2025 standardizes testing for bomb disposal suits and equipment, ensuring quality and interoperability among Indian security forces. It is an indigenous standard and not a joint development with the Russian institute mentioned.

Question 46

X, born in the UK, was conferred the Nobel Prize in 2025. He was a professor in an American university when this prize was announced. Identify ‘X’:

(a) Michel H. Devoret
(b) Richard Robson
(c) John Clarke
(d) Joel Mokyr

Answer: (d) Joel Mokyr

Explanation: This refers to the specific biographical profile of the 2025 Nobel laureate in Economic Sciences, who was born in the UK and built his academic career studying economic history and technological progress at Northwestern University in the United States.

Question 47

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s indigenous new high resolution weather model, the ‘Bharat Forecast System,’ is/are correct?

Its objective is to generate forecasts at the Panchayats cluster level.
It was developed by IIT Delhi.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: The ‘Bharat Forecast System’ was developed primarily by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES) and its constituent bodies (like IITM Pune), not exclusively by IIT Delhi. It is designed to provide hyper-local weather forecasts down to the Panchayat cluster level.

Question 48

Which one of the following pairs of semiconductor plants in India and their locations is not correctly matched?

(a) CG Power and Industrial Solutions Pvt. Ltd. in partnership with Renesas Electronics and STARS Microelectronics : Gujarat
(b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam
(c) HCL-Foxconn Joint Venture India Chip Ltd. : Madhya Pradesh
(d) SicSem Pvt. Ltd. : Odisha

Answer: (b) Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test Pvt. Ltd. : Assam

Explanation: The Tata Semiconductor Assembly and Test (OSAT) facility is a landmark project being established in Morigaon, Assam, making this pair actually correctly matched. The question asks for the “not correctly matched” pair, which would be (d) SicSem Pvt Ltd, as their primary operations/proposals are not slated for Odisha.

Question 49

Which of the following statements with regard to the Grand Slam Tennis Tournaments is/are correct?

The tournaments have a shared governance structure establishing the partnership among the four Grand Slam tournaments.
They are open for entry to all internationally ranked tennis players above the age of 14.
There is a limitation on the number of ‘Wild Cards’ a player may receive to compete in a Grand Slam Tournament.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation: The four Grand Slams operate under the Grand Slam Board. However, they are not open to “all” ranked players above 14 (entry is based strictly on ATP/WTA rankings and cutoffs), and there is no universal limit on how many wild cards a player can receive across their career.

Question 50

Consider the following statements with regard to the film ‘Boong’:

The film has recently won the British Academy of Film and Television Arts (BAFTA) Award in the Children’s and Family Film category.
The film is directed by Lakshmipriya Devi.
This is the first Indian film to win a BAFTA award in the Children’s and Family Film category.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Directed by Lakshmipriya Devi, Boong won significant international acclaim, but it is not the first Indian film to win a BAFTA in children’s categories, as other Indian-origin or collaborative documentaries/shorts have previously received BAFTA recognition.

Question 51

Which of the following statements regarding the features of blockchain technology are correct?

Records stored in the database may be made visible to relevant stakeholders without risk of alteration.
Consortium blockchain is a blend of public and private blockchains allowing selective data access.
Copies of the entire database are stored on multiple computers on a network, syncing within seconds.
Mathematical algorithms make it impossible to change or delete any data once recorded and accepted.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 4 only
(c) 1, 2 and 4
(d) 1 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 1, 2 and 4

Explanation: Blockchains ensure data immutability through cryptographic hashing (4) and provide transparent but unalterable records (1). Consortium blockchains restrict read/write access to a predefined group of nodes (2). Syncing an entire global database within “seconds” (3) is technically inaccurate due to block propagation times and network latency.

Question 52

An e-commerce revenue model where the seller has control over pricing but doesn’t keep products in stock and instead transfers customer orders and shipment details to a third-party supplier, who then ships the goods directly to the customer, is called:

(a) Dropshipping Model
(b) Affiliate Revenue Model
(c) Transaction Fee Revenue Model
(d) Agency Revenue Model

Answer: (a) Dropshipping Model

Explanation: Dropshipping is a retail fulfillment method where a store doesn’t keep the products it sells in stock. When a store sells a product, it purchases the item from a third party (usually a wholesaler or manufacturer) and has it shipped directly to the customer.

Question 53

Which one of the following correctly represents the three key sub-indices of the Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI)?

(a) Credit access, Insurance depth, and Pension coverage
(b) Banking access, GDP contribution, and Financial literacy
(c) Access, Usage, and Quality
(d) Access, Affordability, and Transparency

Answer: (c) Access, Usage, and Quality

Explanation: The RBI’s Financial Inclusion Index (FI-Index) is uniquely constructed to capture the extent of financial inclusion across the country using three broad parameters: Access (35%), Usage (45%), and Quality (20%).

Question 54

Which one of the following best describes the key objective of India’s ‘Open Network for Digital Commerce’ (ONDC) initiative?

(a) To allow government control over all digital commerce transactions
(b) To replace private e-commerce players
(c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks
(d) To mandate UPI-based payments for all online transactions

Answer: (c) To break the dominance of large e-commerce platforms by enabling interoperability across networks

Explanation: ONDC is a non-profit, government-backed network designed to democratize digital commerce in India. It moves the market away from a platform-centric model (where Amazon or Flipkart control everything) to an open-network model, allowing local merchants to compete freely.

Question 55

Which one of the following statements about Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and Central Bank Digital Currency (Digital Rupee) is not correct?

(a) UPI is a real-time payment system but Digital Rupee is akin to sovereign paper currency.
(b) In case of UPI, settlement for end users happens instantly as the money gets immediately debited or credited but in case of Digital Rupee, there is no settlement as the wallet balance gets transferred to another wallet.
(c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.
(d) In both the cases (UPI and Digital Rupee), the liability lies with the users and their respective banks.

Answer: (c) UPI transactions are recorded by banks and reflected in bank statements but in case of Digital Rupee, no data is captured in bank statements as transactions are from one wallet to another.

Explanation: While e-Rupee mimics physical cash by transferring value between wallets, the wallets themselves are issued and hosted by participating banks. Therefore, the loading/unloading of the wallet and the digital ledger trails are visible to the issuing banking authorities, making statement (c) incorrect.

Question 56

Which of the following statements about Real-World Assets (RWA) Tokenization are correct?

Tokenization is the process of turning real world assets into digital tokens using blockchain technology.
Tokenization of real world assets offers 24×7 access, promoting financial inclusion.
Tokenization of real world assets will allow the access to high growth investment opportunities for individuals in India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 and 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: Real-World Asset (RWA) tokenization converts physical assets (real estate, art, bonds) into digital tokens on a blockchain. This fractionalizes ownership, lowers the barrier to entry for retail investors, and provides 24/7 liquidity and market access.

Question 57

A bond whose proceeds are used only to finance or refinance a combination of both environmental and social projects is called:

(a) Green Bond
(b) Social Bond
(c) Sustainability Bond
(d) Sovereign Bond

Answer: (c) Sustainability Bond

Explanation: While Green Bonds finance environmental projects and Social Bonds finance social projects, Sustainability Bonds are specifically structured to exclusively apply their proceeds to a combination of both green and social impact initiatives.

Question 58

Which of the following statements about M1xchange’s role in Micro, Small & Medium Enterprises (MSMEs) financing is/are correct?

M1xchange provides collateral based loans to MSMEs.
M1xchange facilitates discounting of invoices and Bills of Exchange for MSMEs.
M1xchange functions as a credit rating agency for MSMEs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 2 only

Explanation: M1xchange operates as a Trade Receivables Discounting System (TReDS) platform authorized by the RBI. It facilitates the discounting of invoices and bills of exchange for MSMEs against corporate buyers, solving their working capital issues without acting as a direct lender or a credit rating agency.

Question 59

Which one of the following best describes the ‘Crowding Out Effect’ in the context of fiscal policy?

(a) A situation where private investment increases due to increased Government spending
(b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment
(c) A situation where an increase in taxes leads to increased private sector investment
(d) A situation where Government spending has no impact on aggregate demand

Answer: (b) A situation where Government borrowing leads to higher interest rates, which reduces private investment

Explanation: When a government runs a massive deficit and borrows heavily from the domestic market, it absorbs the available lending capital. This drives up interest rates, making it too expensive for private businesses to borrow and invest—effectively “crowding them out.”

Question 60

Which of the following statements about Rare Earth Elements (REEs) and Critical Minerals is/are correct?

Modern technological innovations including Artificial Intelligence, robotics and space exploration extensively utilise Rare Earth Elements (REEs).
China has the highest share in mining of REEs followed by India.
The Government of India launched the National Critical Mineral Mission (NCMM) in 2025 to establish a robust framework for self-reliance in the critical mineral sector.
Rare Earth Elements are a set of 13 metallic elements.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 3 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 3 only

Explanation: REEs are crucial for high-tech manufacturing, and the Indian government launched the NCMM to secure supply chains. However, China is indeed the top producer, but India is not second (the US and Australia usually follow). Furthermore, REEs consist of 17 elements (15 lanthanides plus scandium and yttrium), not 13.

Question 61

Which of the following statements about insurance in aviation sector is/are correct?

‘Aviation Hull Insurance’ covers the physical aircraft, including the body, engine, and on-board equipment.
Under the Montreal Convention, adopted in 1999 by over 130 countries, including India, airlines are strictly liable to pay compensation to the family/nominee of every deceased passenger without requiring the family to prove fault.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Aviation Hull Insurance specifically covers physical damage to the aircraft itself. The Montreal Convention of 1999 modernized airline liability, establishing a two-tier system where airlines are strictly liable for passenger death or injury up to a certain threshold without the need for the victim to prove negligence.

Question 62

Which of the following statements about Crowdfunding is/are correct?

Crowdfunding is solicitation of funds (small amount) from multiple investors through a web-based platform or social networking site for a specific project.
Small and Medium Enterprises (SMEs) are able to raise funds at lower cost of capital without undergoing rigorous procedures.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: Crowdfunding democratizes capital raising by allowing entrepreneurs and SMEs to pitch directly to the public via online platforms, gathering small amounts of money from a large pool of individuals, thereby avoiding the stringent collateral requirements of traditional banks.

Question 63

Consider the following statements about the Non-Banking Financial Companies (NBFCs) in India:

NBFCs cannot accept demand deposits.
All the NBFCs operating in India have to be registered with the RBI.
NBFCs form part of the payment and settlement system and can issue cheque drawn on itself.
Deposit insurance facility of Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation (DICGC) is not available to the depositors of deposit taking NBFCs.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 4 only
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1 and 4

Explanation: NBFCs are prohibited from accepting demand deposits (like savings/current accounts) and cannot issue checks drawn on themselves. Because they do not hold demand deposits, their depositors do not receive the DICGC insurance cover that standard bank account holders receive.

Question 64

With reference to different Committees in India, consider the following details:

1. R.N. Malhotra Committee: Comprehensive reforms of Insurance sector in India (Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority of India)
L.C. Gupta Committee: Preparing a roadmap for the introduction of derivatives trading in India (Securities and Exchange Board of India)
Urjit R. Patel Committee: Preparing a roadmap for reforming bank lending to the Housing sector (Reserve Bank of India)
Y.H. Malegam Committee: Preparing a roadmap for reforms in Microfinance sector in India (Reserve Bank of India)

In which of the above rows are all the details correctly matched?

(a) 2 only
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2 and 4

Answer: (d) 2 and 4

Explanation: The L.C. Gupta Committee laid the foundation for derivatives trading via SEBI, and the Y.H. Malegam Committee reviewed the microfinance sector for the RBI. The R.N. Malhotra Committee was formed by the Government of India (not IRDAI, which it helped create), and the Urjit Patel Committee focused on monetary policy frameworks, not housing.

Question 65

Consider the following statements about Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI):

MPI is calculated using Alkire-Foster methodology.
MPI calculated by NITI Aayog has a total of twelve indicators.
Maternal Health and Bank Account are common indicators in the MPI of NITI Aayog and MPI of United Nations Development Programme (UNDP).

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Both global and national MPIs use the Alkire-Foster method. NITI Aayog’s National MPI adds two extra indicators (Maternal Health and Bank Accounts) to the standard 10 UN indicators, making statement 3 incorrect because they are not “common” to both; they are unique to the Indian version.

Question 66

Which of the following statements with regard to genetic medicine is/are correct?

Genetic medicines correct/compensate for the faulty genes responsible for disease.
Engineered viruses and lipid nanoparticles are used as carriers of the genetic medicine.
Genetic medicines alter the entire DNA sequence.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Genetic medicines (like CRISPR or gene therapies) use viral vectors or lipid nanoparticles to deliver therapeutic material to correct specific faulty genes. They do not alter the entire DNA sequence of the organism, only the targeted loci.

Question 67

Which of the following statements with regard to Large Language Models (LLMs) used in machine learning is/are correct?

LLMs assign probabilities to the next possible words and then pick the one with the highest probability.
LLMs process data through mathematical optimization to minimise prediction errors.
LLMs produce unbiased outputs.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Large Language Models (LLMs) function by predicting the next most probable token (word) using complex mathematical optimization (neural networks). However, they do not inherently produce “unbiased outputs”; they frequently replicate and amplify the biases present in their training data.

Question 68

Which of the following statements with regard to stealth technology is/are correct?

Stealth objects have a very small radar cross-section and are coated with Radar Absorbing Material.
Stealth objects can be detected using specific frequencies.
Stealth objects are coated with metamaterials to increase the scattering of electromagnetic radiation.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 only

Explanation: Stealth technology relies on precise shaping to deflect radar waves away from the receiver and applying Radar Absorbing Materials (RAM) to convert radar energy into heat. Metamaterials are experimental, and stealth objects are explicitly designed not to be detected by specific frequencies.

Question 69

Which of the following statements with regard to Black Boxes used in modern aircrafts is/are correct?

They carry a beacon emitting red light pulses to facilitate underwater detection.
They record both the cockpit voice and flight data.
Their memory units are made using either stainless steel or titanium.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Black Boxes consist of the Cockpit Voice Recorder (CVR) and Flight Data Recorder (FDR) and are equipped with an Underwater Locator Beacon (ULB) that emits acoustic pings, not red light pulses, as light cannot travel far in deep water.

Question 70

Which of the following statements with regard to Green Hydrogen is/are correct?

It is decarbonized hydrogen obtained from natural gas reforming combined with carbon capture and storage (CCS).
It is produced using electrolysis of water with electricity generated by renewable energy.
National Green Hydrogen Mission of India aims for abatement of nearly 50 MMT of annual greenhouse gas emissions by 2030.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Green hydrogen is produced strictly via the electrolysis of water using renewable energy sources (solar, wind). Hydrogen derived from natural gas with carbon capture is classified as “Blue Hydrogen,” making statement 1 incorrect.

Question 71

Consider the following statements with regard to involvement of private entities in India’s space programme:

The Indian National Space Promotion and Authorisation Centre (IN-SPACe) is an autonomous agency formed to facilitate participation of private entities.
Agnikul Cosmos launched the world’s first flight using 3D-printed rocket engine.
Skyroot Aerospace has developed liquid fuel for GSLV.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (d) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: IN-SPACe acts as the single-window nodal agency for private space sector authorization. Agnikul Cosmos successfully tested its semi-cryogenic 3D-printed engine (Agnilet), and Skyroot Aerospace has made major strides in solid and liquid propulsion systems for Indian launch vehicles.

Question 72

Which of the following statements with regard to drone swarms is/are correct?

They use Terahertz band of frequency to communicate with the command centre.
Individual drones in the swarm can communicate with other drones in the swarm.
GPS Spoofing is a commonly used technique to counter drone swarm attack.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: Drone swarms rely on inter-drone communication to maintain formation and execute missions autonomously. Because they rely heavily on GPS for positioning, GPS spoofing (sending fake satellite signals) is a primary electronic warfare countermeasure. They typically do not use the highly experimental Terahertz band for standard command links.

Question 73

Which of the following statements with regard to GenomeIndia Project is/are correct?

It is a part of the Human Genome Project.
The project is funded by the Department of Biotechnology (DBT), Government of India.
Its primary aim is to build a catalogue of genetic diversity of the Indian population.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The GenomeIndia Project is an indigenous initiative funded by the DBT to sequence 10,000 Indian genomes to create a reference database. It is a distinct, modern national project and not a subset of the historical global Human Genome Project completed in 2003.

Question 74

Which of the following statements with regard to the National Quantum Mission (NQM) is/are correct?

It aims at developing intermediate-scale quantum computers with 50-1000 physical qubits.
Its implementation includes setting up of four Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) in academic and national R&D institutes across India.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer: (c) Both 1 and 2

Explanation: The National Quantum Mission (NQM) aims to put India at the forefront of quantum technology by developing 50-1000 qubit computers and establishing four distinct Thematic Hubs (T-Hubs) focused on computing, communication, sensing, and materials.

Question 75

Which of the following statements with regard to India’s Deep Ocean Mission is/are correct?

It was launched by the Ministry of Ports, Shipping and Waterways, Government of India.
Matsya-6000 has been designed to carry 3 people for deep sea exploration.
Samudrayaan is a project under this mission.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (b) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Deep Ocean Mission is a flagship initiative spearheaded by the Ministry of Earth Sciences (MoES), not the Ministry of Ports. Under this mission, Project Samudrayaan is developing the Matsya-6000 submersible to carry three researchers to a depth of 6,000 meters.

Question 76

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare.

Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions?

(a) Esprit de corps
(b) Equity
(c) Accountability
(d) Delegation

Answer: (c) Accountability

Explanation: Accountability in public administration mandates that civil servants are answerable for their actions and the outcomes of the programs they oversee. By reporting the private provider and halting the compromised contract, Mr. X demonstrated strict adherence to public welfare and accountability over administrative convenience.

Question 77

In a multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate land for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the land was sacred and critical to their cultural identity. At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health.

Consider the following statements with reference to the above:

A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives.
The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group.
Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform – including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives – to build mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions.
Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact Assessment (ESIA) and sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision-making.

Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process?

(a) 1, 3 and 4 only
(b) 3 only
(c) 2, 3 and 4 only
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer: (a) 1, 3 and 4 only

Explanation: Effective conflict resolution requires empathy, transparency, and data. Acknowledging tribal concerns (1), facilitating multi-stakeholder dialogue (3), and conducting objective environmental assessments (4) build consensus. Ramming the project through via force (2) violates ethical governance and escalates conflict.

Question 78

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms. X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust.

What amongst the following should Ms. X do now?

Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public
Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity
Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer: (c) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: As an ethical administrator, prioritizing public safety, project integrity, and transparent governance overrides a superior’s request to hide critical risk data to save face. Limited disclosure (3) fails the test of full public accountability and prolongs risk.

Question 79

X was addressing a seminar on the meaning of the term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13. Part III of the Constitution of India. ‘X’ explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. Y pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced.

Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below:

(a) ‘X’ is correct in the interpretation of law, including the view on non-inclusion of custom.
(b) The view of ‘Y’ that ‘law’ included custom is not correct.
(c) The views of both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are correct.
(d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Answer: (d) The view of only ‘Y’ is correct.

Explanation: Article 13(3)(a) of the Indian Constitution explicitly defines “law” to include any Ordinance, order, bye-law, rule, regulation, notification, custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law. Since ‘X’ refused to accept that custom is included, ‘X’ holds an incorrect legal position, whereas ‘Y’ is entirely correct.

Question 80

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India:

There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed.
There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26th January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All three statements are correct.
(b) There is no correct statement.
(c) There are two correct statements that include statement 3.
(d) There is only one correct statement.

Answer: (b) There is no correct statement.

Explanation: Article 393 explicitly states: “This Constitution may be called the Constitution of India.” Article 395 explicitly repeals the Indian Independence Act of 1947 and the Government of India Act of 1935. Article 394 explicitly mentions January 26, 1950, as the date of commencement for the bulk of the articles. Therefore, all three statements are false.

Question 81

Which of the following statements with regard to the persons with disabilities in India is/are correct?

The Rights of Persons with Disabilities Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of India in 2018, mandates reservation in education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure accessibility and non-discrimination.
The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains – built infrastructure, transport systems and information and communication technology.
The National Divyangjan Finance and Development Corporation (NDFDC) is a public sector organisation set up by the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with Disabilities (PwDs).

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: The RPWD Act of 2016 (implemented actively onward) legally mandates accessibility and reservation. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan (Accessible India Campaign) targets the built environment, transport, and ICT. The NDFDC is under the Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment, not the Ministry of Corporate Affairs.

Question 82

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India:

Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes.
The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(b) There are two correct statements, that are statements 1 and 3.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) All three statements are correct.

Answer: (a) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.

Explanation: Statement 1 is incorrect because the administration of Tribal Areas in Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura, and Mizoram is covered under the Sixth Schedule, not the Fifth Schedule. Statement 2 is correct; under Section 10(26) of the Income Tax Act, members of Scheduled Tribes in specified areas are exempt from income tax. Statement 3 is correct; Article 243D(2) provides for the reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to SCs and STs. Therefore, statements 2 and 3 are correct.

Question 83

Consider the following statements in respect of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India :

Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House.
Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer.
No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) All the three statements are correct.
(b) There are two correct statements, that include statement 2.
(c) There is only one correct statement.
(d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (c) There is only one correct statement.

Explanation: Starred questions require an oral answer and allow supplementary questions. Unstarred questions require a written answer, and because the answer is submitted in writing, no supplementary questions can be asked on the floor. Only statement 3 is correct; statements 1 and 2 have their definitions reversed.

Question 84

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes of the Parliament of India:

Although members of this Committee are elected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha.
Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha.
No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee.
Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office.

Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct?

(a) There are four correct statements.
(b) There is only one correct statement, that is statement 2.
(c) There are two correct statements, that include statement 1.
(d) There is no correct statement.

Answer: (d) There is no correct statement.

Explanation: The Committee on the Welfare of SCs and STs consists of 30 members (20 Lok Sabha, 10 Rajya Sabha). The Chairperson is appointed by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, not the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. Ministers are strictly barred from membership, and the term of office is exactly one year, not two. Thus, all statements are false.

Question 85

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India:

It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities.
This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy.
One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 1 only

Answer: (b) 1 and 2 only

Explanation: Mission Sudarshan Chakra is an extensive military modernization framework aimed at bolstering India’s air defense network, integrating indigenous surface-to-air missiles and radar tracking to ensure localized tactical superiority. It is not a civilian program intended to shield all public spaces by 2035.

Question 86

Consider the following statements about river bridges connecting India with neighbouring countries:

‘Maitri Setu’, built over Feni river, connects Ramgarh in India with Sabroom in Bangladesh.
Jhulaghat suspension bridge connects India with Myanmar.
Mechi bridge and its approaches connect Panitanki Bypass in India with Kakarvitta in Nepal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation: The Maitri Setu bridge over the Feni River connects Tripura (India) with Bangladesh. The Jhulaghat suspension bridge crosses the Mahakali River connecting India with Nepal (not Myanmar). The Mechi bridge connects West Bengal (India) with Nepal.

Question 87

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct?

A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station.
The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry.
Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2 and 3 only
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 1 only

Explanation: A Zero FIR allows any police station to register a cognizable offense regardless of territorial jurisdiction and then transfer it to the correct station. A preliminary inquiry is not mandated before a Zero FIR is logged, and the information does not have to be furnished electronically; oral or written complaints are standard.

Question 88

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details:

1. Central Economic Intelligence Bureau (CEIB) : To coordinate between various law enforcement agencies (Ministry of Home Affairs)
Serious Fraud Investigation Office (SFIO) : To investigate complex corporate frauds (Ministry of Finance)
Central Bureau of Investigation (CBI) : To preserve values in public life and ensure the health of the national economy (Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances and Pension)

In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) None

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: The CEIB operates under the Ministry of Finance (Department of Revenue). The SFIO operates under the Ministry of Corporate Affairs to probe white-collar crimes. The CBI falls under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances, and Pensions. Therefore, only the 3rd row matches the correct controlling ministry. (Note: Depending on strict grading formats, if 2 and 3 functions are accepted but only 3 matches the ministry exactly, the count is 1).

Question 89

Which of the following international conventions have not been ratified by India?

Employment Policy Convention
Abolition of Forced Labour Convention
International Convention on the Protection of the Rights of All Migrant Workers and Members of Their Families
Geneva Convention Relative to the Protection of Civilian Persons in Time of War
Convention on Reduction of Statelessness

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 and 4 only
(d) 3, 4 and 5

Answer: (d) 3, 4 and 5

Explanation: India has ratified the Employment Policy Convention and the Abolition of Forced Labour Convention (ILO Core Conventions). However, India has historically refrained from signing the UN conventions on Migrant Workers, the specific 1954/1961 Statelessness conventions, and holds specific reservations regarding internal applicability of the Geneva protocols.

Question 90

Consider the following statements with respect to the AI Impact Summit, 2026 held in New Delhi:

The Summit’s intellectual framework was based on three foundational Sutras: People, Planning, and Progress.
The Preamble of the Summit stresses Democratising AI Resources, which acknowledges the Charter for Democratic Diffusion of AI as a binding framework to support locally relevant innovation and strengthen resilient AI ecosystems while respecting national laws.
The New Delhi Declaration on AI Impact was structured around seven Chakras (Pillars), which included Access for Social Empowerment, AI for Science, and Secure and Trusted AI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 3 only

Answer: (a) 1, 2 and 3

Explanation: The AI Impact Summit held in New Delhi was structured around the “Three Sutras” (People, Planning, Progress) and the “Seven Chakras,” establishing India’s diplomatic position on democratizing AI compute resources and ensuring trusted, secure, and socially empowering AI frameworks.

Question 91

Which of the following connectivity projects is/are a part of cooperation between India and the ASEAN member countries?

Kaladan Multi-Modal Transit Transport Project
IMT Trilateral Highway
Agartala-Akhaura Rail Line

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Kaladan Multi-Modal project and the India-Myanmar-Thailand (IMT) Trilateral Highway are flagship connectivity initiatives explicitly linking India with ASEAN nations. The Agartala-Akhaura rail line links India with Bangladesh, which is not a member of ASEAN.

Question 92

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (Project Supported by India)

A. Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project

B. Restoration of Stor Palace

C. District Hospital at Dickoya

D. Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies

List II (Country)

Maldives
Afghanistan
Bhutan
Sri Lanka

(a) A-1, B-4, C-2, D-3
(b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1
(c) A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1
(d) A-1, B-2, C-4, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-2, C-4, D-1

Explanation: India funded the Mangdechhu Hydroelectric Project in Bhutan. India helped restore the historic Stor Palace in Kabul, Afghanistan. The Dickoya hospital project was built with Indian assistance in the central province of Sri Lanka. The Institute of Security and Law Enforcement Studies is an Indian-backed capacity-building project in the Maldives.

Question 93

Which of the following items of defence hardware is/are manufactured in India?

Su-30 MKI Fighter Jets
T-90 MK-III Tanks
Akula Class Submarine

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: Su-30 MKI jets are manufactured under license by HAL in India. T-90 MK-III (Bhishma) tanks are manufactured by the Heavy Vehicles Factory in Avadi. The Akula Class submarines are nuclear-powered attack submarines leased from Russia, not manufactured in India.

Question 94

Consider the following statements about platforms for multilateral co-operation:

The ‘Colombo Process’ is a regional consultative process in which member states take binding decisions by consensus.
The ‘Abu Dhabi Dialogue’ is a voluntary non-binding consultative process among Asian countries of labour origin and destination to facilitate regional cooperation on contractual labour mobility.
The ‘Global Forum for Migration and Development’, created upon the proposal of a former UN Secretary General, is a voluntary forum whose decisions are non-binding in nature.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 3 only
(c) 2 and 3 only
(d) 2 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3 only

Explanation: The Abu Dhabi Dialogue and the Global Forum for Migration and Development (GFMD) are voluntary, non-binding consultative platforms. The Colombo Process is also a regional consultative process on the management of overseas employment, but its decisions are non-binding, making statement 1 incorrect.

Question 95

Consider the following UN organisations/agencies:

World Food Programme
United Nations Children’s Fund
United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees
International Labour Organisation

How many of the above has/have been awarded the Nobel Prize twice?

(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 3
(d) 4

Answer: (a) 1

Explanation: Among the listed agencies, only the United Nations High Commissioner for Refugees (UNHCR) has won the Nobel Peace Prize twice (in 1954 and 1981) for its work assisting European refugees and later global refugees. (UNICEF, ILO, and WFP have won it once).

Question 96

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (UN Peacekeeping Operation)

A. UNMIL

B. MINURCAT

C. MINUSTAH

D. UNMISET

List II (Period of Operation)

2007-2010
2002-2005
2003-2018
2004-2017

(a) A-3, B-4, C-1, D-2
(b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2
(c) A-2, B-1, C-4, D-3
(d) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3

Answer: (b) A-3, B-1, C-4, D-2

Explanation: UN Peacekeeping Operations match as follows: UNMIL (Liberia, 2003-2018); MINURCAT (Chad and CAR, 2007-2010); MINUSTAH (Haiti, 2004-2017); UNMISET (Timor-Leste, 2002-2005).

Question 97

Match List I with List II and select the answer using the code given below the Lists:

List I (BIMSTEC Centre/Establishment)

A. BIMSTEC Cultural Industries Observatory

B. BIMSTEC Energy Centre

C. BIMSTEC Centre for Weather and Climate

D. BIMSTEC Technology Transfer Facility

List II (Location)

NOIDA
Bengaluru
Colombo
Thimphu

(a) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(b) A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4
(c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3
(d) A-4, B-1, C-2, D-3

Answer: (c) A-4, B-2, C-1, D-3

Explanation: Under the BIMSTEC framework: The Cultural Industries Observatory is based in Bhutan (Thimphu); the Energy Centre is located in India (Bengaluru); the Weather and Climate Centre is in India (Noida); and the Technology Transfer Facility is established in Sri Lanka (Colombo).

Question 98

Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

(a) 3 Corps : Dimapur
(b) 4 Corps : Tezpur
(c) 14 Corps : Leh
(d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Answer: (d) 33 Corps : Srinagar

Explanation: 3 Corps is headquartered in Dimapur (Nagaland); 4 Corps is in Tezpur (Assam); 14 Corps is in Leh (Ladakh). 33 Corps is headquartered in Sukna (Siliguri, West Bengal), not Srinagar. (Srinagar is the headquarters of the 15 Corps / Chinar Corps).

Question 99

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct?

The period of its implementation is 1st April, 2021 to 31st March, 2026.
The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals.
The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories.

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 only
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 2 and 3

Answer: (a) 1 and 2

Explanation: The Revamped RGSA aims to capacitate Panchayati Raj Institutions to achieve localized SDGs from 2021-2026. The funding pattern is not 100% Central; it is typically split 60:40 between the Centre and standard States, and 90:10 for Northeast and Hilly States.

Question 100

Which of the following countries are members of the European Union?

Belarus
Poland
Germany
Switzerland

Select the answer using the code given below:

(a) 1, 2 and 4
(b) 1 and 4 only
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 2 and 4 only

Answer: (c) 2 and 3

Explanation: Among the options listed, Poland and Germany are active member states of the European Union. Belarus and Switzerland are physically located in Europe but are not members of the European Union (Switzerland participates in the single market via bilateral treaties but is not an EU member state).